Talk:Wales
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The South
Is it really true, in all cases, to say that the reason that the south is more Anglicised is:
owing to the extensive exploitation of its natural resources, such as coal and gold, by the English in the 19th century.
This clearly has something to do with it, but I think it might be a bit simplistic and out-of-date to make such a blanket statement. Surely it also has to do with the economic and linguistic differences? John Stephenson 19:51, 7 November 2007 (CST)
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