Talk:Placebo effect: Difference between revisions
imported>Howard C. Berkowitz No edit summary |
imported>D. Matt Innis (→Reason for "might": i agree and...) |
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Incidentally, do look at [[Talk:Sham treatment/Related Articles]]. Larry has some questions about the relationship among [[placebo]], [[placebo effect]], and [[sham treatment]]. All are related, but there's no strict hierarchy among them. [[User:Howard C. Berkowitz|Howard C. Berkowitz]] 05:58, 10 January 2009 (UTC) | Incidentally, do look at [[Talk:Sham treatment/Related Articles]]. Larry has some questions about the relationship among [[placebo]], [[placebo effect]], and [[sham treatment]]. All are related, but there's no strict hierarchy among them. [[User:Howard C. Berkowitz|Howard C. Berkowitz]] 05:58, 10 January 2009 (UTC) | ||
:I agree with all of that, but are you saying that, other than unconscious patients, there are times when the placebo effect does not occur? I know we aren't totally correct without the 'might', but how can we bring it out that, some believe that the placebo effect is part of all treatments based on the assumption that all human contact has a psychological impact. From the House of Lords above: | |||
::"The placebo effect has been described as the therapeutic impact of 'non-specific' or 'incidental' treatment ingredients, as opposed to the therapeutic impact that can be directly attributed to the specific, characteristic action of the treatment." |
Revision as of 02:30, 10 January 2009
House of Lords - Science and technology - Sixth Report
I think this is a really thorough and neutral explanation of the placebo effect from the source the Gareth introduced us to. D. Matt Innis 05:33, 10 January 2009 (UTC)
- Probably a little too late to absorb. Will look at it tomorrow; hopefully the forecasted blizzard doesn't get connectivity or power.
Reason for "might"
Perhaps I should copy the http://jme.bmj.com/cgi/content/full/30/6/551 reference from placebo. When I said "might", perhaps not in the most flowing way, I was thinking of their third case study, which I can make even more ethically complex. A patient presents with clinical depression, for which the clinician prescribes an appropriate antidepressant. The antidepressant is known to a 2-4 week delay before it takes effect.
The patient, however, reports immediate relief of symptoms. Now, unless there's a pharmacologic miracle, this fairly well has to be a placebo effect from a real drug. What are the ethical obligations to continue?
Take it a step further. Let's say the patient, a week later, starts complaining of known side effects from the drug. Now, what is the best ethical course? Keep the patient on a non-benign drug if it has shown benefit for the major complaint and the side effects are not intolerable? Change to a true inert medication, knowing the patient is suggestible?
Incidentally, do look at Talk:Sham treatment/Related Articles. Larry has some questions about the relationship among placebo, placebo effect, and sham treatment. All are related, but there's no strict hierarchy among them. Howard C. Berkowitz 05:58, 10 January 2009 (UTC)
- I agree with all of that, but are you saying that, other than unconscious patients, there are times when the placebo effect does not occur? I know we aren't totally correct without the 'might', but how can we bring it out that, some believe that the placebo effect is part of all treatments based on the assumption that all human contact has a psychological impact. From the House of Lords above:
- "The placebo effect has been described as the therapeutic impact of 'non-specific' or 'incidental' treatment ingredients, as opposed to the therapeutic impact that can be directly attributed to the specific, characteristic action of the treatment."
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